Get Latest Mar-2026 Real SY0-701 Exam Questions and Answers FREE [Q42-Q62]

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Get Latest Mar-2026 Real SY0-701 Exam Questions and Answers FREE

Truly Beneficial For Your CompTIA Exam (Updated 711 Questions)

CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Security Architecture: Here, you’ll learn about security implications across different architecture models, applying security principles to secure enterprise infrastructure in scenarios, and comparing data protection concepts and strategies. The topic also delves into the importance of resilience and recovery in security architecture.
Topic 2	Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations: In this topic, you’ll find discussions comparing threat actors and motivations, explaining common threat vectors and attack surfaces, and outlining different types of vulnerabilities. Moreover, the topic focuses on analyzing indicators of malicious activity in scenarios and exploring mitigation techniques used to secure enterprises against threats.
Topic 3	Security Operations: This topic delves into applying common security techniques to computing resources, addressing security implications of proper hardware, software, and data asset management, managing vulnerabilities effectively, and explaining security alerting and monitoring concepts. It also discusses enhancing enterprise capabilities for security, implementing identity and access management, and utilizing automation and orchestration for secure operations.
Topic 4	Security Program Management and Oversight: Finally, this topic discusses elements of effective security governance, the risk management process, third-party risk assessment, and management processes. Additionally, the topic focuses on security compliance requirements, types and purposes of audits and assessments, and implementing security awareness practices in various scenarios.
Topic 5	General Security Concepts: This topic covers various types of security controls, fundamental security concepts, the importance of change management processes in security, and the significance of using suitable cryptographic solutions.

QUESTION 42
A customer reports that software the customer downloaded from a public website has malware in it. However, the company that created the software denies any malware in its software at delivery time. Which of the following techniques will address this concern?

Secure storage

Static code analysis

Input validation

Code signing

QUESTION 43
Which of the following provides resilience by hosting critical VMs within different IaaS providers while being maintained by internal application owners?

Multicloud architectures

SaaS provider diversity

On-premises server load balancing

Corporate-owned, off-site locations

QUESTION 44
Which of the following security concepts is the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege?

Integrity

Availability

Confidentiality

Non-repudiation

QUESTION 45
A user sends an email that includes a digital signature for validation. Which of the following security concepts would ensure that a user cannot deny that they sent the email?

Non-repudiation

Confidentiality

Integrity

Authentication

QUESTION 46
A newly identified network access vulnerability has been found in the OS of legacy loT devices.
Which of the following would best mitigate this vulnerability quickly?

Insurance

Patching

Segmentation

Replacement

QUESTION 47
A security analyst receives alerts about an internal system sending a large amount of unusual DNS queries to systems on the internet over short periods of time during non-business hours. Which of the following is most likely occurring?

A worm is propagating across the network.

Data is being exfiltrated.

A logic bomb is deleting data.

Ransomware is encrypting files.

QUESTION 48
An employee fell for a phishing scam, which allowed an attacker to gain access to a company PC. The attacker scraped the PC’s memory to find other credentials. Without cracking these credentials, the attacker used them to move laterally through the corporate network. Which of the following describes this type of attack?

Privilege escalation

Buffer overflow

SQL injection

Pass-the-hash

QUESTION 49
A growing company would like to enhance the ability of its security operations center to detect threats but reduce the amount of manual work required tor the security analysts. Which of the following would best enable the reduction in manual work?

SOAR

SIEM

MDM

DLP

QUESTION 50
One of a company’s vendors sent an analyst a security bulletin that recommends a BIOS update. Which of the following vulnerability types is being addressed by the patch?

Virtualization

Firmware

Application

Operating system

QUESTION 51
Which of the following is a common source of unintentional corporate credential leakage in cloud environments?

State actors

Vulnerability databases

Code repositories

Dark web

Threat feeds

QUESTION 52
Which of the following factors are the most important to address when formulating a training curriculum plan for a security awareness program? (Select two).

Channels by which the organization communicates with customers

The reporting mechanisms for ethics violations

Threat vectors based on the industry in which the organization operates

Secure software development training for all personnel

Cadence and duration of training events

Retraining requirements for individuals who fail phishing simulations

QUESTION 53
Which of the following is a common, passive reconnaissance technique employed by penetration testers in the early phases of an engagement?

Open-source intelligence

Port scanning

Pivoting

Exploit validation

QUESTION 54
A hacker gained access to a system via a phishing attempt that was a direct result of a user clicking a suspicious link. The link laterally deployed ransomware, which laid dormant for multiple weeks, across the network. Which of the following would have mitigated the spread?

IPS

IDS

WAF

UAT

QUESTION 55
Which of the following provides the details about the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester?

Rules of engagement

Supply chain analysis

Right to audit clause

Due diligence

Explanation
Rules of engagement are the detailed guidelines and constraints regarding the execution of information security testing, such as penetration testing. They define the scope, objectives, methods, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the clients. Rules of engagement help to ensure that the test is conducted in a legal, ethical, and professional manner, and that the results are accurate and reliable. Rules of engagement typically include the following elements:
The type and scope of the test, such as black box, white box, or gray box, and the target systems, networks, applications, or data.
The client contact details and the communication channels for reporting issues, incidents, or emergencies during the test.
The testing team credentials and the authorized tools and techniques that they can use.
The sensitive data handling and encryption requirements, such as how to store, transmit, or dispose of any data obtained during the test.
The status meeting and report schedules, formats, and recipients, as well as the confidentiality and non-disclosure agreements for the test results.
The timeline and duration of the test, and the hours of operation and testing windows.
The professional and ethical behavior expectations for the testers, such as avoiding unnecessary damage, disruption, or disclosure of information.
Supply chain analysis, right to audit clause, and due diligence are not related to the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester. Supply chain analysis is the process of evaluating the security and risk posture of the suppliers and partners in a business network. Right to audit clause is a provision in a contract that gives one party the right to audit another party to verify their compliance with the contract terms and conditions.
Due diligence is the process of identifying and addressing the cyber risks that a potential vendor or partner brings to an organization.
References =
https://www.yeahhub.com/every-penetration-tester-you-should-know-about-this-rules-of-engagement/
https://bing.com/search?q=rules+of+engagement+penetration+testing

QUESTION 56
Which of the following involves an attempt to take advantage of database misconfigurations?

Buffer overflow

SQL injection

VM escape

Memory injection

QUESTION 57
Which of the following would best explain why a security analyst is running daily vulnerability scans on all corporate endpoints?

To track the status of patch installations

To find shadow IT cloud deployments

To continuously monitor hardware inventory

To hunt for active attackers in the network

QUESTION 58
Company A jointly develops a product with Company B, which is located in a different country. Company A finds out that their intellectual property is being shared with unauthorized companies. Which of the following has been breached?

SLA

AUP

SOW

MOA

QUESTION 59
A company is concerned about weather events causing damage to the server room and downtime. Which of the following should the company consider?

Clustering servers

Geographic dispersion

Load balancers

Off-site backups

Geographic dispersion is a strategy that involves distributing the servers or data centers across different geographic locations. Geographic dispersion can help the company to mitigate the risk of weather events causing damage to the server room and downtime, as well as improve the availability, performance, and resilience of the network. Geographic dispersion can also enhance the disaster recovery and business continuity capabilities of the company, as it can provide backup and failover options in case of a regional outage or disruption12.
The other options are not the best ways to address the company’s concern:
Clustering servers: This is a technique that involves grouping multiple servers together to act as a single system. Clustering servers can help to improve the performance, scalability, and fault tolerance of the network, but it does not protect the servers from physical damage or downtime caused by weather events, especially if the servers are located in the same room or building3.
Load balancers: These are devices or software that distribute the network traffic or workload among multiple servers or resources. Load balancers can help to optimize the utilization,efficiency, and reliability of the network, but they do not prevent the servers from being damaged or disrupted by weather events, especially if the servers are located in the same room or building4.
Off-site backups: These are copies of data or files that are stored in a different location than the original source. Off-site backups can help to protect the data from being lost or corrupted by weather events, but they do not prevent the servers from being damaged or disrupted by weather events, nor do they ensure the availability or continuity of the network services.
References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: High Availability – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 3.4, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 CertificationStudy Guide, page 984: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. :
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 100.

QUESTION 60
Which of the following techniques would identify whether data has been modified in transit?

Hashing

Tokenization

Masking

Encryption

QUESTION 61
An administrator assists the legal and compliance team with ensuring information about customer transactions is archived for the proper time period. Which of the following data policies is the administrator carrying out?

Compromise

Retention

Analysis

Transfer

Inventory

QUESTION 62
An organization has a new regulatory requirement to implement corrective controls on a financial system. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the new requirement?

To defend against insider threats altering banking details

To ensure that errors are not passed to other systems

To allow for business insurance to be purchased

To prevent unauthorized changes to financial data